I am aware of that history (or, more precisely, the derivation of the word). What you are neglecting is that, although english words are derived from words in other languages (greek in this case), the english words do not mean precisely the same as the words from which they are derived.
The word "anarchy", as it has been used in the english language for some centuries, has the meaning I described. Granted, your description captures the derivation of the word "anarchy". But, given that I was writing in a modern english rather than in ancient greek, the definition I gave is one that may be found in any current and reasonably comprehensive english language dictionary.
I wrote in english, not in greek, so I will concede my argument may not seem quite right if my words were translated literally into greek.
A large part of political theory is concerned with progressing towards a desired end-state that is resisted by a number of your ostensible equals.
No, you are deeming me ignorant based on the fact I am not using the same modes of expression that you are. So I can justifiably accuse you of as much ignorance as you accuse me. Pot, kettle, black, and all that.
If I was to decide knowledge is only what I can observe empirically, and can only be expressed with reference to a particular historical context, what would that knowledge reflect?