Thread: A basic Q about calling templated Functions

The declaration be :

Code:

template<class X,class Y> void foo(X,Y);

When calling it, which of the following it a good practice ?...

Code:

foo("bar",1); // no 1
foo<std::string,int>("bar",1);

Both seems to be working for me....and I've seen some books sticking for the former

...but the documentation(err..I've only looked into the one from cplusplus)...says(implicitly implies!!) that the implicit one works(or should work) for when X==Y

Since both i and j are of type int , and the compiler can automatically find out that the template parameter can only be int. This implicit method produces exactly the same result:

// *that follows after an example..so i,j,int are out of scope here..!

Different instantiations of foo() are called.

I was under the impression that "bar" would be cast into a std::string ..seeing the explicit <std::string,int> ..in the 2nd case
Why is a diff instantiation called instead of that..?

Because "bar" is not a std::string, it is a const char*, so the first one doesn't call the same as the <std::string, int> version.

Originally Posted by manasij7479

Why is it wrong to say that the std::string constructor for a c_string would be called then I explicitly say that the <std::string,int> function is to be compiled ?

It is not wrong to say so, because it is correct. And no one has said otherwise.

..ok.. misunderstood an earlier reply...