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ygfperson
04-05-2003, 08:25 AM
I know that ln(x) is defined as the integral of 1/t from 1 to x. What is the logical connection between that integral and ln(x)? Why is it that way?

golfinguy4
04-05-2003, 09:18 AM
AFAIK, ln x is defined as the following:

e^y=x ---> ln(x)=y


Although what you are saying is true, I have never heard of it being used as the definition of ln.

ygfperson
04-05-2003, 10:02 AM
I'll rephrase...

why is the integral of 1/t from 1 to x, ln(x)? What connection is there between a log and an integral? (ie: why does this connection exist?)

alpha
04-05-2003, 10:26 AM
try this link (http://mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/53629.html)

ygfperson
04-05-2003, 08:10 PM
I see... thanks