View Full Version : [We hope that you choke]

Brian

05-12-2002, 08:51 AM

1: Take the equation a = b

2: Now multiply both side of the equation by a, giving:

a2 = ab

3: Add a2 - 2ab to each side, which gives:

a2 + a2 - 2ab = ab + a2 - 2ab

4: Simplify that equation:

2(a2 - ab) = a2 -ab

5: Divide both sides by (a2 - ab), which, astonishingly gives:

2 = 1

Shiro

05-12-2002, 09:05 AM

:)

(You cannot divide by (a2 - ab), since (a2 - ab) may be zero).

Clyde

05-12-2002, 09:07 AM

The reason that works is because a2 = ab, hence a2 - ab = 0.

EDIT: blast shiro beat me to it =)

Brian

05-12-2002, 09:17 AM

hehehe

Vicious

05-12-2002, 10:18 PM

:confused:

Jet_Master

05-20-2002, 05:52 AM

>> The reason that works is because a2 = ab, hence a2 - ab = 0.

That is just the perfectly logical solution. how come i didn't see that?!?! I must sharpen my math skills.

face_master

05-20-2002, 05:55 AM

>>Now multiply both side of the equation by a, giving:

>>a2 = ab

a * a = a to the power of 2 ( i dunno fi this affects the outcome, though...

or did a2 mean a to the power of 2?

Jet_Master

05-20-2002, 05:58 AM

wait! there is still a problem.

if a2-ab is 0, then we are dividing both sides by 0.

dividing anynumber by 0 is infinity or in other words undefined.

so how can there be 2(infinity)?? that is still infinity.

infinity=a number bigger than the biggest number.

if there is 2(infinity), that is the biggest number, hence infinity.

so is infinity=2(infinity)

so, multiplying infinity by any number gives you infinity? that is the same type of property zero has. so is infinity similar ro zero? is infinity=0???

ohhh this is soooooo confusing...

*\ getting dizzy. brain fries. faints /*

Jet_Master

05-20-2002, 06:00 AM

a * a = a to the power of 2 ( i dunno fi this affects the outcome, though...

or did a2 mean a to the power of 2?

a2 means a to the power of 2.in other words, a^2. which is the same as "a squared".

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