1) NoOriginally Posted by Mad Cow
2) Yes
3) Yes
Two sets A and B are equivalent in this sense if there exists a bijective continuous function from A to B.Originally Posted by Perspective
The proof that a circle and a rectangle are topologically equivalent can be done by observing thatOriginally Posted by Perspective
x = r cos t , 0<r<1
y = r sin t , 0<t<2pi
is a circle and the (r,t) space is a rectangle.