mathematics. function inverse

This is a discussion on mathematics. function inverse within the A Brief History of Cprogramming.com forums, part of the Community Boards category; No. The domain of f-1(x) is x>= 0 if the domain of f(x) is x>= 6 or the domain of ...

  1. #16
    & the hat of GPL slaying Thantos's Avatar
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    No. The domain of f-1(x) is x>= 0 if the domain of f(x) is x>= 6 or
    the domain of f-1(x) is x<=0 if the domain of (x) is x<= 6

  2. #17
    S Sang-drax's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by xviddivxoggmp3
    let me go back to the original question on last time.

    correct (yes/no)?
    Sigh, did you even read my posts? Look at the graph for |x-6|, you'll see that the function cannot have one inverse function over the whole domain.
    Last edited by Sang-drax : Tomorrow at 02:21 AM. Reason: Time travelling

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