No. The domain of f-1(x) is x>= 0 if the domain of f(x) is x>= 6 or
the domain of f-1(x) is x<=0 if the domain of (x) is x<= 6
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No. The domain of f-1(x) is x>= 0 if the domain of f(x) is x>= 6 or
the domain of f-1(x) is x<=0 if the domain of (x) is x<= 6
Sigh, did you even read my posts? Look at the graph for |x-6|, you'll see that the function cannot have one inverse function over the whole domain.Originally Posted by xviddivxoggmp3
Last edited by Sang-drax : Tomorrow at 02:21 AM. Reason: Time travelling